Hai teman .. kembali ke MVA alias Microsoft Virtual Academy, bagi teman teman yang mengambil course Configuring and deploying Microsoft's Private Cloud berikut saya kasih contoh soal test yang harus diselesaikan setelah kita menyelesaikan masing masing modul (Komplet buat 8 modul). Mudah mudahan bisa lulus yaaaa .......
Test Material : Configuring and deploying Microsoft's Private Cloud
Modul 1 : Configure
and Deploy Private Cloud Infrastructure
1. System Center 2012 offers integrated
management through VMM 2012 for your heterogeneous data center environments,
including which hypervisors? (Choose all that apply)
a) Microsoft
Hyper-V
b) IBM
Power Hypervisor
c) VMware
vSphere/ESX
d) Citrix
XenServer
2. Microsoft defines automation as a
process to deliver services between what two groups in your private cloud
environment? (Choose all that apply) ,
a) The
IT Administrator
b) The
service consumer
c) The
service provider
d) The
cloud architect
- Constructing the Private Cloud Infrastructure, which of these is not a key step in deploying the infrastructure components for the Private Cloud?
a) Deploy
your compute fabric through bare-metal operating system deployments of Hyper-V
servers
b) Discover,
classify, and allocate your storage fabric for private cloud use.
c) Ensure
the user roles are mapped to a Service Manager group within Active Directory.
d) Abstract
your networking fabric for use in the private cloud.
4. True or false: With Virtual Machine Manager, a VM template
with an abstracted application can be deployed onto any supported virtual hard
disk without alterations.
5. Which of these is used in
the creation of custom user roles?
a) App-V
b) Hyper-V
c) Active
Directory
d) Configuration
Manager
6. Which of these is not a purpose of service templates in
Virtual Machine Manager?
a) Provide
the blueprint for the application service, including specifications for the
hardware, operating system, and application packages.
b) It
pushes information down into the CMDB in terms of the work items that are
created and the various pieces that go together to create the service request
item.
c) Build
out the application tiers, including the various logical instances associated
with each tier.
d) Help
ensure that the application is deployed to the appropriate virtualized resource
pools.\
7. Which of
these is not a feature of role-based access?
a) Control
access to different levels of resources for different users.
b) Specify
what actions a user can do.
c) Set
quotas for how much of the cloud resources users can consume.
d) Deliver
service offerings to users machines through App Controller.
8. What feature of VMM 2012 allows you to
better manage, store, and update the images by separating the applications
settings from the OS?
a) Scalability
b) Upgradability
c) Backward
compatibility
d) Composability
9. Which two things can you do to
operating systems through the use of templates in VMM 2012? (Choose all that
apply)
a) Deploy
new virtual machines from a template
b) Upgrade
the operating system to Windows Azure
c) Retrofit
older virtual machines by applying the template to them
d) Evacuate
and power down hosts as load drops below power optimization threshold
10. How many
virtual CPUs can you allocate to a cloud?
a) 250
b) 400
c) 1024
d) Unlimited,
adjust as you need
11. Using VMM 2012, what are the steps to the private cloud usage
scenario? (Choose all that apply)
a) Configure
the fabric (servers, network, storage)
b) Create
a cloud from the fabric
c) Delegate
the cloud to a self-service user
d) Create
VMs and services in the cloud through the self-service user
12. With Operations Manager, System Center 2012 offers
cross-platform monitoring of which guest operating systems? (Choose all that
apply)
a) Linux
a) Linux
b) Unix
c) IBB
z/OS
d) Sun
Solaris
13. Which of
these is not a way that VMM 2012 helps to simplify administration?
a) Adding
steps to wizards to make them more intuitive
b) Increasing
automation in the product, for example, by the use of rules
c) Replacing
the console with a text-based Windows PowerShell interface
d) Using
role-based administration
Title : Configuring and deploying
Microsoft's Private Cloud
Modul 2 : Monitor and Operate Private Cloud
Infrastructure
1. What are the update types available for
deployed services instances in VMM 2012? (Choose all that apply)
a)
In-place updates
b)
Windows updates
c)
WSUS Baseline Updates
d)
Image-based updates
2. True or false: Dynamic optimization in VMM
2012 provides a cluster-level workload balancing scheme to optimize for VM
performance.
3. Which two of these are types of quotas in VMM
2012? (Choose all that apply),
a)
Per word document—how much you are allowed to type
b)
Shared—total usage of all members of the user role
c)
Per-user—usage of each member of the user role
d)
Per machine—how much hardware you are allowed to buy
4. Which of these can be done with dynamic
optimization in VMM 2012? (Choose all that apply)
a) Re-allocate
workloads to the different virtualization hosts within the cluster to keep the
resources balanced
b) Keep
clusters balanced
c) Avoid
VM downtime
d) Move
VMs from a XenServer Cluster to a Hyper-V cluster
5. Which of these is
not a feature of service templates?
a)
Application-specific information
b)
Customizations for the applications
c)
Specifications for using Office 365
d)
Specific load-balancing information
6. True or false: With image-based updates, VMM
2012 does not replace the old OS image with a new OS image.
7. What aspect of
VMM would you use to create a Service Template?
a) Service
Template Designer
b) Logical
networks
c) PowerShell
d) Platform
design wizard
Topic : Configuring and deploying Microsoft's Private Cloud
Modul : 3. System Center Data Center and Private Cloud; Configure and Deploy Infrastructure Components
1. True or false: Virtual Machine Manager 2012 does not offer
automated provisioning of Hyper-V clusters to bare-metal servers.
2. Which types of networking capabilities does VMM 2012 support when
creating a new Hyper-V cluster?
a)
Automatically assigning static IP addresses from an address pool.
b)
Allowing administrators to specify an IP address from an address pool.
c)
Manually typing IP addresses when no logical network can be detected.
d) All of the above.
3. Which of these hypervisors is not supported by
Virtual Machine Manager 2012?
a)
Microsoft Hyper-V
b)
VMware vSphere
c)
Red Hat KVM
d) Citrix XenServer
4. How does Virtual Machine Manager help you utilize storage more
effectively? (Choose all that apply)
a)
By creating associations between storage and VM through reconciling data
from Hyper-V and storage arrays.
b)
By adding storage capacity during new cluster creation.
c)
By randomly assigning storage volumes to arrays.
d) By utilizing SMI-S copy
services and replication profiles.
5. Which capabilities does Virtual Machine
Manager 2012 provide? (Choose all that apply),
a)
Pool and abstract your data center resources (such as compute, network, and
storage) into a private cloud infrastructure.
b)
Integrate and extend your existing toolsets and build flexible workflows
(or runbooks) that can span across multiple organizational silos and systems.
c)
Manage cross-platform configuration for Linux and Unix servers.
d) Allocate and delegate this
pooled fabric to your business unit IT organizations in a flexible, yet
controlled, manner.
6. What are some advantages of using a logical abstraction for the
network fabric? (Choose all that apply)
a)
You can hide the complexity of a networking environment from users who
don’t need to know about it.
b)
You can ensure the correct users are added to the correct network for your
VMs.
c)
You can deploy apps on your production network without knowing what
physical adapter they use.
d) You can let self-service users
create VMs on the network they want while controlling which NICs and IP
addresses the VMs use.
7. Virtual Machine Manager 2012 provides which of these capabilities?
(Choose all that apply)
a)
Collect fabric resources and build clusters for a virtualization
environment.
b)
Go from “zero to cluster”—from the bare metal to a Microsoft Hyper-V
cluster.
c)
Use a single console for hypervisor and cluster management.
d) Partition clusters into
address pools.
8. What is the importance of optimizing
storage fabric utilization?
a)
With different types of storage that have different costs, you can ensure
the correct storage is used for your VMs.
b)
You can load balance the infrastructure for higher efficiency.
c)
You can speed data processing in the private cloud.
d) Microsoft Hyper-V requires
storage optimization.
9. Which of these is not a feature provided by
Configuration Manager 2012?
a)
Applying service template configuration settings onto virtual machines.
b)
Bare-metal deployment of operating systems onto physical machines.
c)
Full unattended installation mode with media for deployment.
d) Extensibility to automate the
selection of an available task sequence.
a)
They specify preconfigured properties for configuring a load balancer at
service deployment.
b)
They specify load balancing methods—round robin, least connections, fastest
response.
c)
They allow VMs in different environments or logical networks to use the
same load balancer.
d) They enable a common load
balancing API.
11. Which of these tools in System Center 2012 help you deal more
efficiently with the deployment and configuration of resources that help you
deliver IT as a service? (Choose all that apply)
a)
App-V
b)
Virtual Machine Manager
c)
Configuration Manager
d) Resource Manager
12. Which of these is not a key step in deploying the infrastructure
components for your private cloud?
a)
Deploy your compute fabric through bare metal OS deployments of Hyper-V
servers.
b)
Automate the process workflows required to drive your provisioning and
monitoring tools.
c)
Discover, classify, and allocate the storage fabric for private cloud use.
d) Abstract the networking fabric
for use in the private cloud.
13. Which of these capabilities cannot be done when deploying Hyper-V
hosts onto bare-metal servers with Virtual Machine Manager 2012?
a)
Deploy a brand new machine with the hypervisor enabled through the
baseboard management controller.
b)
Automate the configuration of a deployed server and add it to the private
cloud.
c)
Help ensure hosts are deployed with the approved OS configurations.
d)
Deploy the host on
Azure.
14. Which of these
is not a stage in the storage allocation process?
a)
Discover storage through SMI-S provider.
b)
Map storage to virtual IP pools.
c)
Allocate storage to specific host groups.
d) Create new LUNs from pool and
assign to hosts and clusters.
15. What is the
benefit of having address pools?
a)
Network administrators have to assign IP addresses manually.
b)
They improve security by obscuring which IP addresses are in use.
c)
Addresses are automatically assigned from a dynamic pool as needed at
deployment time, and returned when the VM or service is deleted.
d) They allow multiple VMs to use
the same IP address at the same time.
Topic : Configuring and deploying Microsoft's Private Cloud
Modul 4 :
System Center Data
Center and Private Cloud;
Monitor and Operate Infrastructure Components
1. Which of these is not a capability of the out-of-the-box network
monitoring offered by Operations Manager 2012?
a)
Discover different types of network environments.
b)
Analyze the historical data to create “what-if” scenarios for future
planning.
c)
Monitor specific ports, interfaces, and peripheral components.
d) Visualize which devices are in
the vicinity of a specific network device.
2. How
does the network vicinity view help you manage your networking infrastructure?
(Choose all that apply)
a)
It lets you locate where devices are physically installed.
b)
It alerts you when other networks are connected to your network over the
Internet.
c)
It lets you determine whether a network device or a connected server is at
fault when the server is unreachable.
d) It provides detailed
information on connected devices for use in diagnosing problems.
3. Which of these tools is the best choice for protecting the
infrastructure components for your private cloud?
a)
Endpoint Protection
b)
Data Protection Manager
c)
Orchestrator
d) Operations Manager
4. How
does Operations Manager 2012 provide consistent monitoring visibility? (Choose
all that apply)
a)
Administer through the Operations Manager console.
b)
Delegate access through the Operations Manager web client.
c)
Push dashboard alerts in Virtual Machine Manager.
d) Publish content to Microsoft
SharePoint Server using web parts.
5. How does Operations Manager 2012 provide a holistic view of your
system’s health? (Choose all that apply)
a)
It lets you monitor all levels, from the elements of the infrastructure
through the applications and to the end-user experience.
b)
It updates the performance monitoring of your private cloud with Windows
Azure
c)
It lets you drill down into applications to determine where problems lie.
d)
It supports
Windows Azure based applications in the cloud as well as on-premises
applications.
6. Which of these is not an example of the continuous backup and
protection for Microsoft workloads that Data Protection Manager provides?
a)
Point-in-time recovery of SQL and Exchange databases.
b)
Farm and granular level recovery of SharePoint data.
c)
Version control of application updates.
d)
Seamless protection
of virtual machines even through live migrations.
7. What’s the best way to manage updates for your virtualization resources?
a) Push out patches to all hosts simultaneously with
Configuration Manager.
b) Orchestrate cluster patching with Virtual Machine
Manager 2012 and a dedicated 64-bit Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) 3.0
SP2 server.
c)
Use Server App-V for version control of applications.
d) Remove outdated images from
service with Operations Manager.
8. Why do you need to monitor your resources once the infrastructure
for the private cloud is deployed? (Choose all that apply)
a)
To meet government mandates for operating procedures.
b)
To ensure the infrastructure is meeting your service level agreements.
c)
To find the root causes when a problem occurs.
d) To protect from outages while
minimizing costs.
9. Which of these is not a consideration for monitoring and operating
your infrastructure components?
a)
Monitor operating system, compute, storage, and network infrastructure to
help ensure infrastructure SLAs.
b)
Quickly view infrastructure health, diagnose alerts, and resolve problems
using built-in knowledge.
c)
Help ensure service availability and recover from infrastructure outages.
d) Provide standardized
specifications for deploying applications, defining how they are configured and
scaled.
10. Which of the following are benefits of using Operations Manager 2012
in your private cloud? (Choose all that apply)
a)
Achieve your infrastructure SLAs.
b)
Create clouds for specific needs.
c)
Trend infrastructure usage over time.
d)
View specific service, tier, or application settings for a virtual machine.
Topic : Configuring and deploying Microsoft's Private Cloud
Modul 5 :
Specialization - Datacenter and Private Cloud Management: Configure and Deploy
Service Delivery & Automation
1. With
Configuration Manager, System Center 2012 offers cross-platform configuration
management for which of the following? (Choose all that apply)
a) Linux
servers
b) Unix
servers
c) Windows
Server servers
d) Apache
servers
2. System Center 2012 offers integrated management
through VMM 2012 for your heterogeneous data center environments, including
which hypervisors? (Choose all that apply)
a) Microsoft
Hyper-V
b) IBM
Power Hypervisor
c) VMware
vSphere/ESX
d) Citrix
XenServer
3. Which three items does the Service Manager
Configuration Management Database (CMDB) manage? (Choose all that apply)
a) Application
templates
b) Software
installed
c) Incident
records
d) Change
requests
4. How does a
service consumer initiate a service request?
a) With
automated forms in Service Manager.
b) By
emailing a template to the service provider.
c) From
the self-service portal in System Center 2012.
d) By
creating an entry in the CMDB.
5. What does Service
Control Manager do?
a) It
registers Windows Services for support in App-V.
b) It
creates templates for deploying services.
c) It
is used for modifying the resources in VMM 2012.
d) It
is used for the Service Level Agreements settings in Service Manager.
6. True or false: A
service offering can have one or more request offerings.
7. Which of the following are not true of the
role-based feature of System Center 2012?
a)It
allows offerings to be delivered based on a user’s role in the organization.
b)The
user will only see offerings based on their role.
c)User
roles are mapped to a Service Manager group within Active Directory.
d)The
service offerings are delivered to their machine through Configuration Manager.
8. When standardizing service offerings in System Center,
what two items are not published to the service catalog? (Choose all that
apply)
a) Service
offerings
b) Request
offerings
c) Automation
notifications
d) Process
assignments
a) A
work item used to identify and classify standard IT services.
b) An
offering created by an IT service provider that consumers access from the
Service Catalog.
c) A
mapping of user automation activities.
d) A
way to invoke workflow rules to route requests for immediate action.
10. With
Operations Manager, System Center 2012 offers cross-platform monitoring of
which guest operating systems? (Choose all that apply)
a) Linux
b) Unix
c) IBM
z/OS
d) Sun
Solaris
11. If a service consumer makes the request for more private cloud
capacity for an application, which of the following steps is not required to
deploy this capacity?
a) Configure
request offering
b) Publish
to service catalog
c) Provision
runbook invoked
d) Monitor
for private cloud capacity created and deployed
12. Microsoft defines automation as a process to
deliver services between what two groups in your private cloud environment?
(Choose all that apply)
a) The
application owner
b) The
service consumer
c) The
service provider
d) The
cloud architect
13. What System Center component automates core
organizational process workflows such as incident management, problem
management, change management, and release management?
a) Orchestrator
b) Service
Manager
c) Operations
Manager
d) System Center
Advisor
14. What System Center component allows you
to build flexible workflows (or runbooks) that can span across multiple
organizational silos and systems?
a) Orchestrator
b) VMM
2012
c) Service
Manager
d) Application
Controller
Topic : Configuring and deploying Microsoft's Private Cloud
Modul 6 : Monitor And Operate Service Delivery & Automation
1. What are the three fundamental concepts
of monitoring and operating service delivery in System Center 2012? (Choose all
that apply)
a) Orchestrating
b) Integration
c) Process
automation
d) Reporting
2. How does the Service Manager Data
Warehouse allow you to create reports and dashboards?
a) Using
Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Manager
b) Using
OLAP cubes
c) Using
the report authoring function in Microsoft Office
d) Using
the Microsoft PowerPivot functionality of Service Manager
3. When using the runbook designer, what
are three standard activities you can do to support the delivery of private
cloud offerings? (Choose all that apply),
a) Run
system commands
b) Provide
hardware and software inventory
c) Perform
schedule-based activities
d) Monitor
processes or system level alerts
4. Release management can ensure the
controlled release of changes to which of the private cloud components? (Choose
all that apply)
a) Application
b) Infrastructure
c) Services
d) Service
catalog updates
5. True or false: Orchestrator Integration
Packs do not facilitate automating specific activities in System Center,
third-party applications, and line of business tools.
6. In System Center 2012, what is the term
for a collection of activities that are pulled together in a workflow?
a) A
runbook
b) The
service catalog
c) The
template designer
d) The
self-service portal
7. What is the
purpose of release management in System Center 2012?
a) Ensuring
that change management requests are managed and released to minimize the impact
and duration of the disruption to normal business.
b) Providing
updates from line of business applications.
c) Issuing
automation commands to other System
Center products.
d) Creating
a new virtual machine.
8. What is the
best description of System Automation with System Center 2012?
a) It
is the orchestration and integration required to fulfill a request across the
different systems, whether it’s within System Center 2012 or third-party management
tools.
b) It
pushes information down into the CMDB in terms of the work items that are
created and the various pieces that go together to create the service request
item.
c) It
surrounds the aspects of assignment, notification, and approval of requests.
d) It
is required to create a service template based on user requests.
9. What functions can Service Manager
connectors perform? (Choose all that apply)
a) They
facilitate System
Center and Exchange
connectivity for configuration item data and notifications.
b) They
automate activities from Orchestrator that are pulled into the Service Manager
CMDB.
c) They
can create a new virtual machine.
d) They
can create a dashboard to provide visibility into IT performance.
10. What is the main purpose of using SLAs
for our service delivery and automation functions in System Center?
a) Tying
these to a particular objective such as a service request or incident response.
b) Monitoring
the changes made to the CMDB.
c) Showing
what workflow features executed correctly.
d) Defining
new configuration item types.
11. What are the three components of the new service level
agreement (SLA) feature within Service Manager?
(Choose all that apply)
a) Business
hour calendaring
b) Service
level metrics
c) System
uptime information
d) Service
level objectives
12. Which of these are disadvantages to
manual processes that IT professionals can solve by using the new service
delivery and automation functions in System Center 2012? (Choose all that
apply)
a) Manual
processes are resource-intensive, only scaling with more people.
b) Manual
processes are error prone, often creating inconsistent outcomes.
c) Manual
processes have a negative impact on service level agreements.
d) Support
costs for manual processes continue to increase.
13. Which automation concept is used to
publish and consume information as a runbook executes?
a) The
web service
b) Invoking
PowerShell commands
c) The
databus
d) The
Service Manager execution engine
14. The reporting capability of System Center
2012 is available through which Microsoft products? (Choose all that apply)
a) Microsoft
SharePoint Server
b) Microsoft
Word
c) Windows
Server
d) Microsoft
Excel
15. How does the
information in the CMDB get accessed by users?
a) Through
the template designer
b) Through
the runbook designer
c) Through
VMM 2012
d) Through
the self-service portal
Topic : Configuring and deploying Microsoft's Private Cloud
Modul 7 :
Application Services Management, Configuration & Deployment
1. What System Center component is used to
enable a standardized approach to deploying applications across private and
Windows Azure public clouds?
a) Virtual
Machine Manager
b) System Center
Configuration Manager
c) App
Controller
d) System Center
Orchestrator
2. True or false: In a cloud computing
model, a service is a deployed instance of an application along with its
associated configuration and virtual infrastructure.
3. What do you
need to do before you deploy a Server App-V package?
a) Ensure
the application is compatible with the other applications in the private cloud
environment.
b) Deploy
the Server App-V agent.
c) Inject
the application.
d) Run
a post-script to configure the application.
4. When provisioning an application with a
service template, what two steps happen next? (Choose all that apply)
a) It
is published out to the service template library
b) It
is delegated to those that can deploy a service based on this template through
permissions
c) It
is published to the CMDB
d) Service
Manager can utilize it to publish the application
5. You can use templates in System Center
2012 to specify information to do which of the following? (Choose all that
apply)
a) Deploy
applications
b) Configure
applications
c) Run
applications as services
d) Create
applications from the operating system
6. When doing application performance
monitoring, what are three things client-side monitoring can monitor? (Choose
all that apply)
a) Code
that is executed and delivered by the application
b) Page
load times
c) Server
and network latency
d) Client-side
scripting exception
7. What best describes the goal of the new
Deep Insight and Application Performance Monitoring initiative in the new System Center
product?
a) Pure
application availability monitoring.
b) Being
able to consistently determine if the application is up and running.
c) Performance
monitoring is about the end user experience and the performance levels we
expect from the applications.
d) Using
the same tools to monitor with visibility across infrastructure and
applications
Topic : Configuring and deploying Microsoft's Private Cloud
Modul 8 :
Application Services Management, Operation & Management
1. When deploying applications in a
private cloud, what application operating models are typically used?
(Choose all that apply)
a) Abstracted
b) Traditional
c) Consistent
d) Rational
2. True or false: Applications can be
deployed in service templates to run on Microsoft Hyper-V, VMware vSphere, and
Citrix XenServer hypervisors.
3. What does the API model using
certificate authentication in App Controller let you do?
a) Manage
the subscriptions through Operations Manager
b) Use
VM roles to manage access to your Windows Azure subscriptions.
c) Have
a single view of multiple Windows Azure subscriptions, and delegate access to
those subscriptions.
d) Give
customers a different way to deliver applications in a private cloud
4. What other System Center 2012
components combine to takes alerts from Operations Manager, and performs
automated remediation?
a) Orchestrator
b) Service
Manager
c) Configuration
Manager
d) Application
Controller
5. Which System Center feature allows rich
reporting and trending information about the application’s performance?
a) The
Operations Manager Web Client
b) The
Operations Manager Dashboard
c) The
Operations Manager management pack
d) The
Operations Manager Application Advisor
6. What are two examples of “Out-of-Box”
application dashboards that are pre-configured in System Center?
(Choose all that apply)
a) Network
dashboards
b) Operations
Manager Health dashboards
c) Configuration
Manager dashboards
d) App
Controller dashboards
7. What do you need to enable Operations
Manager to monitor Windows Azure applications?
a) A
certificate connection to the Windows Azure applications
b) An
Operations Manager Azure connector
c) App
Controller
d) AWindows
Azure subscription
9. “Image-based
management” is a way to do what? (Choose all that apply)
a) Perform
application updates using Server App-V.
b) Allows
version control of application updates using Server App-V.
c) Monitor
application subscriptions in Windows Azure
d) Provide
application updates through System Center Configuration Manager
10. What does
Service Control Manager do?
a) It
enables you to build service template models.
b) It
registers Windows Services (for support of Server App-V
c) It
controls the application services deployed to users.
d) It
creates applications as services in Server App-V.
11. Which of
these does not provide consistent application monitoring visibility?
a) The
Operations Manager console
b) The
Operations Manager web client
c) System Center
App Controller
d) SharePoint
2010
12. Server App-V
is a feature of which System
Center component?
a) Virtual
Machine Manager
b) Configuration
Manager
c) Application
Controller
d) Service
Manager
13 Once we have Server App-V packages with
all of the binaries, resources, and state configuration, what is a possible way
to deploy the application?
a) By
using a standardized template
b) Through
the runtime configuration applied on deployment
c) Through
the application deployment function in VMM 2012
d) By
using application profiles
14. When configuring application performance
monitoring, how are Applications discovered?
a) By
creating an application dashboard
b) By
using the web console or SharePoint plug-in
c) Through
management packs imported into Operations Manager
d) Through
the service template connectors
15. Which pair of abilities lets Operations
Manager resolve the differences between end users having poor application
performance and infrastructure monitoring admins showing that the underlying
servers are up and running?
a) Availability
monitoring versus performance monitoring
b) Uptime
monitoring versus downtime monitoring
c) End-user
performance versus network performance
d) Server
utilization monitoring versus application availability monitoring
16. Which functions can be performed with App
Controller? (Choose all that apply)
a) Integrate
with Operations Manager to monitor the performance of the private cloud and
public cloud services.
b) Manage
Private Cloud services
c) Manage
Windows Azure applications
d) Deploy
new applications on both the private cloud and public cloud
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